Tuthmose
Limp Gawd
- Joined
- Nov 4, 2009
- Messages
- 182
How would the same percentage across the board disproportionately affect the poor? The same percentage would take the same percentage from everyone. If you're saying that the rich have more left over, well, duh. That's like complaining that some big corporation made a huge amount of money as profit while a small business made a smaller amount. It's all about the margin of profit. What percentage are you keeping from what you make, and how much is seized by government forces?
Because, with no deduction for basic cost of living, you are taking a deep cut of the poor folks ability to simply feed themselves and put a roof over their head, whereas the rich don't feel that pain at all. A, say, 5% tax on all income might mean a poor person can't buy medicine. For a wealthy one, it might mean literally nothing at all.
Now, if you build in a certain "floor", with income below that untaxed by dint of it being necessary to a very basic, no frills existence, you effectively negate that complaint. Some of the better flat tax proposals do exactly that, which makes them much more viable.
-Tuthmose