Red Squirrel
[H]F Junkie
- Joined
- Nov 29, 2009
- Messages
- 9,217
Ok, so at work we prank each other a lot, but this just has me baffled.
So I turned on windows firewall, ensured no exceptions were added. He managed to pskill one of my processes by connecting to a server I was connected to and somehow connecting to my PC through an existing TCP session that he saw in netstat.
How is this possible? I understand that when you connect to a server a port opens up on your PC, but I did not figure these ports could be connected to directly, and even then, how did he manage to use psexec through said port?
I'm confused as to how this is done, and it makes me realize I do not understand TCP as much as I thought I did, and perhaps I have some serious vulnerabilities in my home or online servers that I don't realize I have.
So with this exploit, say I was to telnet to a port on a malicious server, through my TCP connection, the server's owner could do anything to my PC. Is this really the case?
So I turned on windows firewall, ensured no exceptions were added. He managed to pskill one of my processes by connecting to a server I was connected to and somehow connecting to my PC through an existing TCP session that he saw in netstat.
How is this possible? I understand that when you connect to a server a port opens up on your PC, but I did not figure these ports could be connected to directly, and even then, how did he manage to use psexec through said port?
I'm confused as to how this is done, and it makes me realize I do not understand TCP as much as I thought I did, and perhaps I have some serious vulnerabilities in my home or online servers that I don't realize I have.
So with this exploit, say I was to telnet to a port on a malicious server, through my TCP connection, the server's owner could do anything to my PC. Is this really the case?